Any economic transfer is a redistribution of interests. Take this case as an example. Industry has moved from cities to villages and manors-villages and manors have the ability to produce handicrafts-and villages and manors have gained the dominance of rival industrial products markets-isn't this a redistribution of interests?

Political power is bound to be linked with economic power. The simplest reasoning is that without money, a political group cannot maintain its own operation and participate in public affairs. Where does political power come from? Only wealthy political groups have the ability to engage in public affairs, and holding public affairs in their hands naturally gives them political power.

In this case, villages and manors have no ability to produce handicrafts, so they must rely on cities that can produce industrial products, and naturally they must rely on urban political power; When the industry gradually flows to the countryside and big estates, the urban regime is no longer attached, and its political power naturally loses its meaning-with the decentralization of the economy, the political power originally enjoyed by the city is dispersed to the rural estates with the economy.